Did Isaiah mention anywhere that although it would be a sign from "the Lord himself" generally, the virgin birth would be unknown to the people? That during the child's life, he would not have been known as the child of the virgin birth? Did he say that this virgin would have a husband? Could this situation have been inferred from Isaiah's prophecy? Did Isaiah say anywhere that even the man who would take this virgin as his wife, would want to divorce her because of the child? Did he give any hint as to the details that would surround the virgin birth? No. Isaiah simply referred to her conception as a sign from "the Lord himself" (33:20)

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