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Although it appears that none were led to Christ through the Bethlehem prophecy, a question still remains regarding the understanding of this prophecy, namely: Was it correctly understood before it was fulfilled? The Bible clearly shows that it was - half of it, that is. The religious leaders did correctly understand the part of this prophecy referring to Bethlehem. But does understanding part of a prophecy mean anything? Should they have been trusted to interpret the other half, the one referring to "ruler in Israel"? Did they really know what they were talking about, or were they guessing? If the answer to this question does not seem clear to you, then let's try asking another, more-to-the-point question: Should the people have followed the interpretation of the religious leaders, or not?
(58:17)
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